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Problem A. 903. (March 2025)

A. 903. Let the irrational number \(\displaystyle \alpha={1-\frac1{2a_1-\frac1{2a_2-\frac1{2a_3-\frac1{\dots}}}}}\), where coefficients \(\displaystyle a_1\), \(\displaystyle a_2\), \(\displaystyle \ldots\) are positive integers, infinitely many of which are greater than \(\displaystyle 1\). Prove that for every positive integer \(\displaystyle N\) at least half of the numbers \(\displaystyle \lfloor \alpha \rfloor, \lfloor 2\alpha \rfloor,\ldots , \lfloor N\alpha \rfloor\) are even. \(\displaystyle \lfloor x \rfloor\) denotes the floor function of \(\displaystyle x \), which is the greatest integer less than or equal to \(\displaystyle x\).

Proposed by: Géza Kós, Budapest

(7 pont)

Deadline expired on April 10, 2025.


For an arbitrary irrational number \(\displaystyle p\) and \(\displaystyle C>0\) let

\(\displaystyle S(c,p)=\sum_{0<k\le C} (-1)^{\lfloor kp \rfloor}. \)

We have to prove that \(\displaystyle S(N,\alpha)\ge 0\).

Lemma 1. For irrational numbers \(\displaystyle p,q>1\) satisfying \(\displaystyle \frac1p+\frac1q=1\) Beatty-sequences \(\displaystyle \lfloor kp\rfloor\) (\(\displaystyle k=1,2,...\)) and \(\displaystyle \lfloor lq\rfloor\) (\(\displaystyle l=1,2,...\)) contain every integer exactly once.

Proof. This statement is well known and easy to prove: positive integer \(\displaystyle K\) appears in the first sequence \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{K+1}{p}\rfloor-\lfloor \frac{K+1}{p}\rfloor\) times and in the second sequence \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{K+1}{q}\rfloor-\lfloor \frac{K+1}{q}\rfloor\), and \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{K+1}{p}\rfloor+\lfloor \frac{K+1}{q}\rfloor=K\), since \(\displaystyle \frac{K+1}{p}+\frac{K+1}{q}=K+1\) and the addends are not integers. From this, the sum of the two number of occurences is \(\displaystyle K-(K-1)=1\).

Lemma 2. For irrational numbers \(\displaystyle p,q>0\) satisfying satisfying \(\displaystyle \frac1p+\frac1q=1\) and \(\displaystyle C>0\)

\(\displaystyle S\left(\frac{C}{p},p\right)+S\left(\frac{c}{q},q\right)\in \{0,-1\}. \)

Proof. Let's count the number of occurences of positive integer \(\displaystyle n\) in sequences \(\displaystyle \lfloor kp\rfloor\) and \(\displaystyle \lfloor lq\rfloor\), if \(\displaystyle k\le \frac{C}{p}\) and \(\displaystyle l\le \frac{C}{q}\). Clearly \(\displaystyle n\le C\) (otherwise it won't appear in an any of the two sequences).

If \(\displaystyle n+1\le C\), we have already seen that it will appear \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{n+1}{p}\rfloor-\lfloor \frac{n}{p}\rfloor\) and \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{n+1}{q}\rfloor-\lfloor \frac{n}{q}\rfloor\). The sum of these is 1.

If \(\displaystyle n\le C <n+1\) (i.e. \(\displaystyle n=\lfloor C\rfloor\)), then it will appear \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{C}{p}\rfloor -\lfloor \frac{n}{p}\rfloor\) and \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{C}{q}\rfloor -\lfloor \frac{n}{q}\rfloor\). \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{C}{p}\rfloor+ \lfloor \frac{C}{q}\rfloor = \lfloor C\rfloor \) or \(\displaystyle \lfloor C\rfloor -1\), and \(\displaystyle \lfloor \frac{n}{p}\rfloor+ \lfloor \frac{n}{q}\rfloor=n-1=\lfloor C\rfloor -1\), therefore the sum of occurences is 1 or 0. Thus

\(\displaystyle S\left(\frac{C}{p},p\right)+S\left(\frac{c}{q},q\right)=\sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^i \text{ or } \sum_{i=1}^{n-1} (-1)^i=0 \text{ or } -1. \)

Lemma 3. For any integer \(\displaystyle a\)

\(\displaystyle S(C,a+2p)=S(c,p) \text{ and } S(C,2a-p)=-S(C,p). \)

Proof. The first one is trivial, since the parities of the floors of \(\displaystyle kp\) and \(\displaystyle k(2a+p)\) are equal. The second follows from \(\displaystyle \lfloor kp\rfloor + \lfloor k(2a-p)\rfloor=2ak-1\).

The solution of the problem. Let's define \(\displaystyle p=2-\alpha={1+\dfrac1{2a_1-\dfrac1{2a_2-\dfrac1{2a_3-\dfrac1{~\cdots~}}}}}\), \(\displaystyle q=\frac{1}{1-\frac1p}=\frac{p}{p-1}=1+\frac{1}{p-1}=1+2a_1-\dfrac1{2a_2-\dfrac1{2a_3-\dfrac1{~\cdots~}}}=2a_1+\alpha'\), where \(\displaystyle \alpha'\) is defined as \(\displaystyle \alpha'=1-\dfrac1{2a_2-\dfrac1{2a_3-\dfrac1{~\cdots~}}}\). Clearly \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}=1\), and so

$$\begin{align*} \text{Lemma 3:} &\qquad S\Big(A,\alpha\Big) + S\Big(A,p\Big) =0, \\ \text{Lemma 2:} &\qquad S\Big(A,p\Big) +S\Big(\dfrac{p}{q}A,q\Big) =\varepsilon\in\big\{0,-1\big\} \\ \text{Lemma 3:} &\qquad S\Big(\dfrac{p}{q}A,q\Big) = S\Big(\dfrac{p}{q}A,\alpha'\Big), \end{align*}$$

therefore

\(\displaystyle S(A,\alpha)=S\left(\frac{p}{q}A,\alpha'\right)-\varepsilon\ge S\left(\frac{p}{q}A,\alpha'\right). \)

This means that we can replace \(\displaystyle A\) and \(\displaystyle \alpha\) by \(\displaystyle \frac{p}{q}A\) and \(\displaystyle \alpha'\) without increasing the value of \(\displaystyle S(A,\alpha)\). Now let's iterate this step. Note that \(\displaystyle \frac{p}{q}=p-1\le \frac{1}{2a_1-1}\le 1\), so the value of \(\displaystyle A\) cannot increase, and since infinitely many times \(\displaystyle \frac{p}{q}\) will be at most \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{3}\) (in each step when \(\displaystyle a_i>1\), since in this case \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2a_i-1}\)), the value of \(\displaystyle A\) will eventually become smaller than 1, in which case we clearly get 0 as a result (the defining sum being empty), therefore our proof is finished.


Statistics:

5 students sent a solution.
7 points:Bodor Mátyás, Szakács Ábel, Varga Boldizsár, Xiaoyi Mo.
1 point:1 student.

Problems in Mathematics of KöMaL, March 2025